I just heard Dan Rather, in a radio commentary on a CBS News radio affiliate, refer to Americans as "citizens of a government" [emphasis mine] rather than "citizens of a nation"... a statist Freudian slip, or simple ignorance unbecoming a self-styled political pundit?
Posted by Russell Whitaker at January 1, 2004 3:41 PM | TrackBackTypical. I would say that he honestly believes that a "citizen" is defined by what government they submit to.
Posted by: Curt Howland on January 1, 2004 8:41 PMDoes the Basque nation (for example) have citizens as such?
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